Algebra · real student question

Let A be an m by n matrix. Prove that there exists an n by m matrix B such that ABA = A.

Question

Let AA be an m×nm\times n matrix. Prove that there exists an n×mn\times m matrix BB such that

ABA=AABA=A

Step-by-step solution

  1. Reduce to a canonical form. Let r=rank(A)r=\operatorname{rank}(A). Every matrix is equivalent to its rank normal form: there exist invertible PP (m×mm\times m) and QQ (n×nn\times n) with

    PAQ=D:=(Ir000)m×nPAQ=D:=\begin{pmatrix}I_{r}&0\\ 0&0\end{pmatrix}_{m\times n}

    PP and QQ record the row and column operations that clear AA down to this block form.

  2. Solve the problem for DD first. Define the n×mn\times m matrix

    D:=(Ir000)n×mD^{-}:=\begin{pmatrix}I_{r}&0\\ 0&0\end{pmatrix}_{n\times m}

    — the same block pattern with the dimensions swapped, which is what makes the products conformable. Block multiplication gives DD=(Ir000)m×mDD^{-}=\begin{pmatrix}I_{r}&0\\0&0\end{pmatrix}_{m\times m} and hence

    DDD=DDD^{-}D=D

    since multiplying DD on the left by that idempotent projector leaves its only nonzero block untouched.

  3. Transport the solution back to AA. From PAQ=DPAQ=D we get A=P1DQ1A=P^{-1}DQ^{-1}. Define

    B:=QDPB:=QD^{-}P

    which is (n×n)(n×m)(m×m)=n×m(n\times n)(n\times m)(m\times m)=n\times m, exactly the required shape. Note B=QDPB=QD^{-}P, not QDPQDP — the transpose-shaped block matrix is essential for the dimensions to match.

  4. Verify ABA=AABA=A by substitution. Substituting both expressions and cancelling the inverse pairs:

    ABA=(P1DQ1)(QDP)(P1DQ1)=P1DDDQ1=P1DQ1=AABA=\left(P^{-1}DQ^{-1}\right)\left(QD^{-}P\right)\left(P^{-1}DQ^{-1}\right)=P^{-1}D\,D^{-}D\,Q^{-1}=P^{-1}DQ^{-1}=A

    using Q1Q=InQ^{-1}Q=I_{n}, PP1=ImPP^{-1}=I_{m} and the identity DDD=DDD^{-}D=D from step 2. This completes the proof.

  5. Note what the statement does and does not claim. BB is called a generalized inverse (or {1}\{1\}-inverse) of AA. It is generally not unique — any BB of the form QDPQD^{-}P built from a different choice of P,QP,Q works, and when r<min(m,n)r<\min(m,n) the free blocks give infinitely many. It coincides with A1A^{-1} only when AA is square and invertible (r=m=nr=m=n).

  6. Numerical confirmation. The Moore–Penrose pseudoinverse is one explicit such BB. For random matrices of shapes 4×34\times 3 (rank 2), 3×53\times 5 (rank 3) and 5×55\times 5 (rank 1), computing AA+AAA\,A^{+}A-A gives entries of size 101510^{-15} or smaller — machine zero, as the theorem predicts.

Answer

B=QDP, where PAQ=D=(Ir000)m×n and D=(Ir000)n×mB=QD^{-}P,\ \text{where } PAQ=D=\begin{pmatrix}I_{r}&0\\ 0&0\end{pmatrix}_{m\times n}\ \text{and}\ D^{-}=\begin{pmatrix}I_{r}&0\\ 0&0\end{pmatrix}_{n\times m}

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