Present Value Equation

Discount single sums, cash-flow streams and whole projects with AI-powered step-by-step solutions
Present value of $50,000 received in 8 years at 6%
Present value of $4,000, $5,000 and $6,000 over three years at 7%
NPV of -$20,000 today then $8,000 a year for 3 years at 9%
What discount rate makes $10,000 in 5 years worth $7,500 today?

The Present Value Equation

Present value answers one question: what is a future amount worth today? Reverse the compounding formula FV=PV(1+r)nFV = PV(1+r)^n and you get

PV=FV(1+r)n=FV(1+r)nPV = \frac{FV}{(1+r)^n} = FV(1+r)^{-n}

  • FVFV — the amount received later
  • rr — the discount rate per period, as a decimal
  • nn — the number of periods until it arrives

The factor (1+r)n(1+r)^{-n} is the discount factor; it is always between 0 and 1 for r>0r > 0, so present value is always below face value. The rate rr is a choice, not a fact: it represents what the money could otherwise earn, and the answer moves with it. Doubling rr does not halve PVPV — the relationship is exponential, so long horizons are punished far harder than short ones.

Uneven Cash Flows and NPV

When the amounts differ from period to period, discount each one on its own date and add:

PV=t=1nCt(1+r)tPV = \sum_{t=1}^{n} \frac{C_t}{(1+r)^t}

Net present value subtracts what you pay up front:

NPV=C0+t=1nCt(1+r)tNPV = -C_0 + \sum_{t=1}^{n} \frac{C_t}{(1+r)^t}

NPV>0NPV > 0 means the discounted inflows exceed the outlay at that rate; NPV=0NPV = 0 defines the internal rate of return.

If the cash flows are all equal, the sum collapses to the annuity form:

PV=C1(1+r)nrPV = C \cdot \frac{1 - (1+r)^{-n}}{r}

and if they continue forever, to the perpetuity PV=C/rPV = C/r. Two more rearrangements are worth remembering: FV=PV(1+r)nFV = PV(1+r)^n recovers the future amount, and

r=(FVPV)1/n1r = \left(\frac{FV}{PV}\right)^{1/n} - 1

gives the rate implied by a pair of values.

Common Mistakes to Avoid

  • Percent left unconverted: r=0.06r = 0.06, not 66.
  • Off-by-one on tt: a payment one year out is discounted once, so t=1t = 1. Only a payment received today has t=0t = 0.
  • Mixing periods: quarterly cash flows need a quarterly rate (rannual/4r_{\text{annual}}/4) and nn counted in quarters.
  • Averaging uneven cash flows first: discounting the average is not the average of the discounted values, because (1+r)t(1+r)^{-t} is non-linear.
  • Using the annuity shortcut on unequal payments: that formula assumes every CtC_t is identical.
  • Forgetting the sign of C0C_0: in an NPV, the initial outlay is negative. Adding it instead flips the decision.

示例题目

Step 1: PV=FV/(1+r)n=50000/(1.06)8PV = FV/(1+r)^n = 50000/(1.06)^8
Step 2: (1.06)81.5938481(1.06)^8 \approx 1.5938481
Step 3: PV50000/1.593848131,370.62PV \approx 50000 / 1.5938481 \approx 31{,}370.62
Step 4: Check: 31,370.62×1.593848150,00031{,}370.62 \times 1.5938481 \approx 50{,}000
Answer: PV \approx \31{,}370.62$

Step 1: Year 1: 4000/1.073,738.324000/1.07 \approx 3{,}738.32
Step 2: Year 2: 5000/(1.07)2=5000/1.14494,367.195000/(1.07)^2 = 5000/1.1449 \approx 4{,}367.19
Step 3: Year 3: 6000/(1.07)3=6000/1.2250434,897.796000/(1.07)^3 = 6000/1.225043 \approx 4{,}897.79
Step 4: Add: 3738.32+4367.19+4897.79=13,003.303738.32 + 4367.19 + 4897.79 = 13{,}003.30
Answer: PV \approx \13{,}003.30(versus(versus$15{,}000$ undiscounted)

Step 1: The inflows are level, so use the annuity factor: (1.09)3=1.295029(1.09)^3 = 1.295029
Step 2: (1.09)30.7721835(1.09)^{-3} \approx 0.7721835, so 10.7721835=0.22781651 - 0.7721835 = 0.2278165
Step 3: Factor: 0.2278165/0.092.53129470.2278165 / 0.09 \approx 2.5312947
Step 4: PV8000×2.531294720,250.36PV \approx 8000 \times 2.5312947 \approx 20{,}250.36
Step 5: NPV=20,000+20,250.36=250.36NPV = -20{,}000 + 20{,}250.36 = 250.36
Answer: NPV \approx +\250.36$, so the internal rate of return sits just above 9%

常见问题

PV = FV/(1+r)^n, where FV is the future amount, r the discount rate per period as a decimal and n the number of periods. For a stream of cash flows, discount each one separately and add them: PV = Σ C_t/(1+r)^t.

The rate represents the return the money could otherwise earn over the same horizon, so it is an input you decide, not something the formula produces. Because present value moves sharply with r, it is normal practice to compute PV at several rates and see how sensitive the answer is.

PV discounts future cash inflows to today. NPV also subtracts the amount paid up front: NPV = −C0 + Σ C_t/(1+r)^t. A positive NPV means the discounted inflows are worth more than the outlay at the rate you used.

Convert both inputs to the same period. Use r = annual rate / 12 and count n in months, so $1,000 a month for 3 years at 6% uses r = 0.005 and n = 36. Mixing an annual rate with a monthly count is the most common error.

相关求解器

免费试用 AI-Math

任何数学问题都能获得分步解答。拍照上传或输入问题即可。

开始解题