Calculus · real student question

Find an upper bound for the sum of 1/(1 + n^2 ln n) from n = 1 to infinity.

Question

Find an upper bound for

n=111+n2lnn\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{1+n^{2}\ln n}

Step-by-step solution

  1. Handle n=1n=1 separately. Since ln1=0\ln 1=0, the first term is 11+0=1\dfrac{1}{1+0}=1 — the largest term in the whole series, and one that no comparison involving lnn\ln n can cover. Split it off:

    S=1+n=211+n2lnnS=1+\sum_{n=2}^{\infty}\frac{1}{1+n^{2}\ln n}

  2. Drop the +1+1 to enlarge each term. For n2n\ge 2, 1+n2lnn>n2lnn>01+n^{2}\ln n>n^{2}\ln n>0, so making the denominator smaller makes the fraction larger:

    11+n2lnn<1n2lnn\frac{1}{1+n^{2}\ln n}<\frac{1}{n^{2}\ln n}

    Every inequality in a bounding argument must push in the same direction; here both do.

  3. Replace lnn\ln n by its smallest value on the range. For n2n\ge 2 we have lnnln2\ln n\ge\ln 2, so

    1n2lnn1n2ln2\frac{1}{n^{2}\ln n}\le\frac{1}{n^{2}\ln 2}

    This is the step that converts an awkward log-weighted series into a plain pp-series, at the cost of some tightness.

  4. Sum the comparison series exactly. Using the Basel result minus its first term,

    n=21n2=π2610.644934\sum_{n=2}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n^{2}}=\frac{\pi^{2}}{6}-1\approx 0.644934

  5. Assemble the bound.

    S<1+1ln2(π261)=1+0.6449340.693147=1.93044S<1+\frac{1}{\ln 2}\left(\frac{\pi^{2}}{6}-1\right)=1+\frac{0.644934}{0.693147}=1.93044

    The series converges, and its sum is certainly below 1.930441.93044.

  6. Judge how tight the bound is. Summing three million terms gives S1.4976S\approx 1.4976, so the bound overshoots by about 0.430.43. Most of the slack comes from step 3: replacing lnn\ln n by ln2\ln 2 is generous for large nn, where lnn\ln n is much bigger. Splitting the sum at, say, n=10n=10 and using ln10\ln 10 beyond that would tighten it considerably.

Answer

S<1+1ln2(π261)1.93044(true value1.4976)S<1+\frac{1}{\ln 2}\left(\frac{\pi^{2}}{6}-1\right)\approx 1.93044\quad(\text{true value}\approx 1.4976)

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