Calculus · real student question

Let f be differentiable on all of R. Prove that f is continuous on all of R.

Question

Let ff be differentiable at every real number. Prove that ff is continuous on all of R\mathbb{R}.

Step-by-step solution

  1. Reduce the statement to a single point. Continuity on R\mathbb{R} means continuity at every aRa\in\mathbb{R}, so it suffices to fix an arbitrary aa and show

    limxaf(x)=f(a)\lim_{x\to a}f(x)=f(a)

    Equivalently, limxa(f(x)f(a))=0\displaystyle\lim_{x\to a}\big(f(x)-f(a)\big)=0.

  2. Use the hypothesis. By assumption ff is differentiable at aa, which means the limit

    f(a)=limxaf(x)f(a)xaf'(a)=\lim_{x\to a}\frac{f(x)-f(a)}{x-a}

    exists as a finite number. That existence is the only thing available, so the proof must be arranged to use it.

  3. Insert the difference quotient artificially. For xax\neq a the following is an identity, obtained by multiplying and dividing by xax-a:

    f(x)f(a)=f(x)f(a)xa(xa)f(x)-f(a)=\frac{f(x)-f(a)}{x-a}\cdot(x-a)

    This is the whole trick: it turns an unknown difference into a product of something whose limit is known and something that visibly tends to 00.

  4. Take limits with the product rule for limits. Both factors have limits, so the limit of the product is the product of the limits:

    limxa(f(x)f(a))=(limxaf(x)f(a)xa)(limxa(xa))=f(a)0=0\lim_{x\to a}\big(f(x)-f(a)\big)=\left(\lim_{x\to a}\frac{f(x)-f(a)}{x-a}\right)\cdot\left(\lim_{x\to a}(x-a)\right)=f'(a)\cdot 0=0

    The finiteness of f(a)f'(a) is essential — an infinite derivative would leave an indeterminate 0\infty\cdot 0.

  5. Conclude. Therefore limxaf(x)=f(a)\displaystyle\lim_{x\to a}f(x)=f(a), i.e. ff is continuous at aa. Since aa was arbitrary,

    f is continuous on all of R\boxed{f\text{ is continuous on all of }\mathbb{R}}

  6. Note that the converse fails. Continuity does not imply differentiability: f(x)=xf(x)=|x| is continuous at 00 but the difference quotient xx\tfrac{|x|}{x} tends to +1+1 from the right and 1-1 from the left, so f(0)f'(0) does not exist. Weierstrass's function is continuous everywhere and differentiable nowhere, showing the gap is not a minor exception.

Answer

limxa(f(x)f(a))=f(a)0=0, so f is continuous at every a\lim_{x\to a}\big(f(x)-f(a)\big)=f'(a)\cdot 0=0,\ \text{so }f\text{ is continuous at every }a

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