Calculus · real student question

Suppose f is differentiable on the interval [a, infinity) and the limit of f as x approaches a from the right equals the limit of f as x approaches infinity, both equal to a finite number A. Prove that there exists xi in (a, infinity) with f'(xi) = 0.

Question

Let ff be differentiable on [a,+)[a,+\infty) and suppose

limxa+f(x)=limx+f(x)=A\lim_{x\to a^{+}}f(x)=\lim_{x\to +\infty}f(x)=A

where AA is a finite number. Prove that there exists ξ(a,+)\xi\in(a,+\infty) such that f(ξ)=0f'(\xi)=0.

Step-by-step solution

  1. Recognise this as Rolle's theorem stretched over an infinite interval. Rolle needs equal values at two endpoints; here you only have equal limits, and one end is at infinity, so the theorem does not apply directly. The workaround is Fermat's theorem instead: at an interior point where a differentiable function attains a local extremum, the derivative is zero. The whole proof therefore reduces to trapping an extremum strictly inside (a,+)(a,+\infty).

  2. Dispose of the constant case. If f(x)Af(x)\equiv A on (a,+)(a,+\infty), then f(x)=0f'(x)=0 for every xx, and any ξ\xi works. So assume from now on that there is a point x0(a,+)x_{0}\in(a,+\infty) with f(x0)Af(x_{0})\neq A. Replacing ff by f-f if necessary, we may assume

    f(x0)>Af(x_{0})>A

    since f-f has the same limits (negated) and the same zero-derivative points.

  3. Use the two limits to confine large values to a bounded window. Put

    ε=f(x0)A2>0\varepsilon=\frac{f(x_{0})-A}{2}>0

    From limxa+f(x)=A\lim_{x\to a^{+}}f(x)=A there is u(a,x0)u\in(a,x_{0}) such that f(x)A<ε|f(x)-A|<\varepsilon, hence f(x)<A+εf(x)<A+\varepsilon, for all x(a,u]x\in(a,u]. From limx+f(x)=A\lim_{x\to+\infty}f(x)=A there is v>x0v>x_{0} such that f(x)<A+εf(x)<A+\varepsilon for all xvx\geq v. So outside [u,v][u,v] the function stays below A+εA+\varepsilon, while inside it reaches

    f(x0)=A+2ε>A+εf(x_{0})=A+2\varepsilon>A+\varepsilon

  4. Attain the maximum on the closed interval and show it is interior. ff is differentiable, hence continuous, on the compact interval [u,v][u,v], so by the extreme value theorem it attains a maximum there at some ξ[u,v]\xi\in[u,v]. That maximum is at least f(x0)=A+2εf(x_{0})=A+2\varepsilon. But f(u)<A+εf(u)<A+\varepsilon and f(v)<A+εf(v)<A+\varepsilon, so ξ\xi is neither endpoint:

    ξ(u,v)(a,+)\xi\in(u,v)\subset(a,+\infty)

  5. Upgrade the maximum on [u,v][u,v] to a global maximum, then apply Fermat. For x(a,u)x\in(a,u) and for x>vx>v we have f(x)<A+ε<f(ξ)f(x)<A+\varepsilon<f(\xi), so f(ξ)f(\xi) is in fact the largest value of ff on all of (a,+)(a,+\infty); in particular it is a local maximum at an interior point. Since ff is differentiable at ξ\xi, Fermat's theorem gives

    f(ξ)=0f'(\xi)=0

    which completes the proof.

  6. Note where each hypothesis was needed. Finiteness of AA was essential for choosing ε\varepsilon; equality of the two limits is what makes the function return to the same level at both ends so a bump in the middle cannot be a monotone trend; and differentiability on all of (a,+)(a,+\infty) is what lets Fermat's theorem fire at ξ\xi. Drop any one of them and the conclusion can fail — for instance f(x)=1/xf(x)=1/x on [1,)[1,\infty) has different end limits and no critical point.

Answer

Proof: either fA (so f0), or an interior global extremum ξ(a,+) exists and Fermat gives f(ξ)=0\text{Proof: either } f\equiv A \text{ (so } f'\equiv 0 \text{), or an interior global extremum } \xi\in(a,+\infty) \text{ exists and Fermat gives } f'(\xi)=0

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